Mean Value Theorem

Why doesn't it hold if the function isn't differentiable?

Answers
Well, because if a function is not differentiable then there is no meaning of f'(c) that for some c is meant to equal (f(b)-f(a))/(b-a) - so how can the theorem hold in the case that f'(c) does not exist - at least not everywhere?
jim360
15 November 2012
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